100% Passing Guarantee - Brilliant SY0-701 Exam Questions PDF [Jan-2026]
SY0-701 Dumps 2026 - NewCompTIA SY0-701 Exam Questions
CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 389
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is themostappropriate?
- A. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- B. Performing code signing on company-developed software
- C. Testing input validation on the user input fields
- D. Performing static code analysis on the software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 390
A malicious update was distributed to a common software platform and disabled services at many organizations. Which of the following best describes this type of vulnerability?
- A. DDoS attack
- B. Supply chain
- C. Rogue employee
- D. Insider threat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 391
Which of the following should a security administrator adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules?
- A. Change management procedure
- B. Incident response procedure
- C. Disaster recovery plan
- D. Business continuity plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
A change management procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that a security administrator should adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules. A firewall is a device or software that can filter, block, or allow network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall rule is a statement that defines the criteria and action for a firewall to apply to a packet or a connection. For example, a firewall rule can allow or deny traffic based on the source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, or applications. Setting up a new set of firewall rules is a type of change that can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the network.
Therefore, a change management procedure is necessary to ensure that the change is planned, tested,approved, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. A change management procedure typically includes the following elements:
A change request that describes the purpose, scope, impact, and benefits of the change, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the change owner, implementer, and approver.
A change assessment that evaluates the feasibility, risks, costs, and dependencies of the change, as well as the alternatives and contingency plans.
A change approval that authorizes the change to proceed to the implementation stage, based on the criteria and thresholds defined by the change policy.
A change implementation that executes the change according to the plan and schedule, and verifies the results and outcomes of the change.
A change documentation that records the details and status of the change, as well as the lessons learned and best practices.
A change review that monitors and measures the performance and effectiveness of the change, and identifies any issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved.
A change management procedure is important for a security administrator to adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules, as it can help to achieve the following objectives:
Enhance the security posture and compliance of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are aligned with the security policies and standards, and that they do not introduce any vulnerabilities or conflicts.
Minimize the disruption and downtime of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are tested and validated before deployment, and that they do not affect the availability or functionality of the network services or applications.
Improve the efficiency and quality of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are optimized and updated according to the changing needs and demands of the network users and stakeholders, and that they do not cause any performance or compatibility issues.
Increase the accountability and transparency of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are documented and reviewed regularly, and that they are traceable and auditable by the relevant authorities and parties.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to the process of setting up a new set of firewall rules. A disaster recovery plan is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. An incident response procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that aim to contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from a security incident, such as a cyberattack, data breach, or malware infection. A business continuity plan is a set of strategies and actions that aim to maintain the essential functions and operations of an organization during and after a disruptive event, such as a pandemic, power outage, or civil unrest. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701),Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.3: Security Operations, video: Change Management (5:45).
NEW QUESTION # 392
A security manager is implementing MFA and patch management. Which of the following would best describe the control type and category? (Select two).
- A. Detective
- B. Physical
- C. Technical
- D. Preventative
- E. Administrator
- F. Managerial
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 393
Which of the following is an example of memory injection?
- A. A process receives an unexpected amount of data, which causes malicious code to be executed.
- B. Two processes access the same variable, allowing one to cause a privilege escalation.
- C. An executable is overwritten on the disk, and malicious code runs the next time it is executed.
- D. Malicious code is copied to the allocated space of an already running process.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Memory injectionoccurs whenmalicious code is written into the memory space of a running process, allowing it to execute without writing anything to disk. This is often used infileless malware attacks, making detection harder.
A (privilege escalation)describes a race condition, not memory injection.
B (unexpected data causing execution)describes abuffer overflow attack, not memory injection.
D (overwriting an executable)is apersistence technique, but it is not an example of in-memory injection.
Reference:CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations domain.
NEW QUESTION # 394
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
- A. Regulatory requirement
- B. Organizational change
- C. Self-assessment requirement
- D. Service-level requirement
Answer: A
Explanation:
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 395
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Insider
- B. Nation-state
- C. Unskilled attacker
- D. Hacktivist
Answer: B
Explanation:
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare.
NEW QUESTION # 396
A group of developers has a shared backup account to access the source code repository. Which of the following is the best way to secure the backup account if there is an SSO failure?
- A. RAS
- B. SAML
- C. EAP
- D. PAM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Privileged Access Management (PAM) solutions enhance security by enforcing strong authentication, rotation of credentials, and access control for shared accounts. This is especially critical in scenarios like SSO failures. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Privileged Access and Identity Management".
NEW QUESTION # 397
A security analyst receives an alert from a corporate endpoint used by employees to issue visitor badges. The alert contains the following details:
Which of the following best describes the indicator that triggered the alert?
- A. Concurrent session usage
- B. Account lockout
- C. Brute-force attack
- D. Blocked content
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:The activity described in the table, where multiple connection attempts are made on port 445 (used for SMB services), suggests a brute-force attack. The attacker likely used automated methods to guess credentials, causing multiple failures. Such attempts are a hallmark of brute-force attacks targeting shared resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Indicators of Malicious Activity".
NEW QUESTION # 398
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a "deny any" policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?
- A. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
- B. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
- C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
- D. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the 'deny any' policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic.
Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the 'deny any' policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An 'allow any' policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the 'deny any' policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an 'allow any' policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification StudyGuide, page 204-205; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.
NEW QUESTION # 399
Which of the following should a technician perform to verify the integrity of a file transferred from one device to another?
- A. Encryption
- B. Hashing
- C. Authentication
- D. Obfuscation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Hashing is the process used to verify file integrity. When transferring a file between devices, a hash value (such as SHA-256) is generated before the transfer and then recomputed afterward. If the two hash values match, the file has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during transmission.
Authentication (A) verifies identity, not file integrity. Obfuscation (B) hides meaning but does not detect modification. Encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not guarantee integrity unless combined with hashing or digital signatures.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 covers hashing under cryptographic functions used for integrity verification.
Hash algorithms ensure that even a single byte change results in a completely different hash value (the avalanche effect). This makes hashing the standard method for verifying the integrity of transferred files, software downloads, backups, and system images.
NEW QUESTION # 400
Which of the following environments utilizes a subset of customer data and is most likely to be used to assess the impacts of major system upgrades and demonstrate system features?
- A. Development
- B. Test
- C. Staging
- D. Production
Answer: C
Explanation:
A staging environment is a controlled setting that closely mirrors the production environment but uses a subset of customer data. It is used to test major system upgrades, assess their impact, and demonstrate new features before they are rolled out to the live production environment. This ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a safe environment before affecting end-users.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of secure system development and testing environments.
NEW QUESTION # 401
While a user reviews their email, a host gets infected by malware from an external hard drive plugged into the host. The malware steals all the user's credentials stored in the browser. Which of the following training topics should the user review to prevent this situation from reoccurring?
- A. Operational security
- B. Password management
- C. Social engineering
- D. Removable media and cables
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:This scenario highlights the need for training on the secure use of removable media.
Users should learn to avoid using untrusted external storage devices to prevent malware infections.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section:
"Removable Media Controls and User Awareness Training".
NEW QUESTION # 402
Which of the following is a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage in cloud environments?
- A. Threat feeds
- B. State actors
- C. Code repositories
- D. Dark web
- E. Vulnerability databases
Answer: C
Explanation:
Code repositories are a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage, especially in cloud environments. Developers may accidentally commit and push sensitive information, such as API keys, passwords, and other credentials, to public or poorly secured repositories. These credentials can then be accessed by unauthorized users, leading to security breaches. Ensuring that repositories are properly secured and that sensitive data is never committed is critical for protecting against this type of leakage.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threats and Vulnerability Management.
NEW QUESTION # 403
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
- A. Pass-t he-hash
- B. Account forgery
- C. Password spraying
- D. Brute-force
Answer: C
Explanation:
Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.
The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.
Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.
Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.
Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks
... - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute Force Attack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet
NEW QUESTION # 404
You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for aWindows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.
The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.
The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections.
NEW QUESTION # 405
Which of the following phases of the incident response process attempts to minimize disruption?
- A. Recovery
- B. Preparation
- C. Containment
- D. Analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containmentis the phase wherean organization attempts to minimize the damage caused by a security incident. This may involve isolating affected systems, blocking malicious traffic, or temporarily shutting down compromised services to prevent further impact.
* Recovery (A)focuses on restoring normal operations after an incident.
* Preparation (C)involves planning and readiness before an incident occurs.
* Analysis (D)involvesinvestigating the root causeand assessing the damage.
NEW QUESTION # 406
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